50%. Since the outcomes of the previous flips don't affect the current flip, it merely depends on the number of flips and the odds of getting heads. Unless you want to count the miniscule chance of getting neither heads nor tails, where the coin lands on it's side and you slowly descend into madness as all math, physics, and probability start to fall apart, it's a pure 50% chance that you'll get heads. There is also an equal number of odd numbers between 1 and 2016, so it's not skewed odds. Thus, your answer is 50%.
So, the easiest way to solve this is to work backwards. Ed ends up with a grand total of $150. Before that, she earned an extra $50, so we subtract that from $150 leaving us with $100. If she spent half her paycheck and ended up with $100, then we can multiply that $100 by 2 giving us her initial weekly paycheck: $200
Here's the work in normal form:
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It depends on the original format of the question. If it was originally written as 2*log(x+2) then no, you can't treat the two like a normal interger until you get rid of the logarithm. If, however, it was written 2*log(x)+2, then the two is not a part of the logarithm and can be treated as a normal interger because it is one. Once you determine the right format, it's merely a matter of stacking the logs and solving algebraically.
Hope this helped!