This is seemingly easy, but it is extremely hard.
This one is the Collatz conjecture, which remains unsolved for years.
Link: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collatz_conjecture
EDIT: Sorry, I read the question wrong. But it is still good to read about the conjecture.
f(11) = 34, so f(34) is defined.
f(34) = 34/2 = 17, so f(17) is defined.
f(17) = 3(17) + 1 = 52, so f(52) is defined.
f(52) = 52/2 = 26, so f(26) is defined,
f(26) = 26/2 = 13, so f(13) is defined.
f(13) = 3(13) + 1 = 40, so f(40) is defined.
f(40) = 40/2 = 20, so f(20) is defined.
f(20) = 20/2 = 10, so f(10) is defined.
f(10) = 10/2 = 5, so f(5) is defined.
f(5) = 3(5) + 1 = 16, so f(16) is defined.
f(16) = 16/2 = 8, so f(8) is defined.
f(8) = 8/2 = 4, so f(4) is defined.
f(4) = 4/2 = 2, so f(2) is defined.
f(2) = 2/2 = 1, so f(1) is defined.
f(1) = 3(1) + 1 = 4
Now we ended up in an infinite loop of 4, 2, 1, 4, 2, 1, etc.
Let's count how many numbers did we encounter.
For \(x\in\{11,34,17,52,26,13,40,20,10,5,16,8,4,2,1\}\), f(x) is defined.
Therefore there are at least 15 integers in the domain of f.